Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year
Posted by WCSL GONE on 2/18/09
Who freaking cares about this tenant problem? not me ! WEST COAST SCHOOL OF LAW IS DEAD ! On 2/18/09, -- wrote: > On 2/18/09, Ralph wrote: >> This seems like a classic case of tenancy at sufferance. A >> tenancy at sufferance is when a tenant stays on the property >> after the expiration of the lease. The payment of rent would >> mean that there would be no tenancy at sufferance, but rather >> an extension of the lease (maybe unenforcable without a >> written contract, however). > > Your understanding of the definition of a tenant at sufferance > is not quite correct. He is only a tenant at sufferance if he > continues to pay rent after his lease expires and the landlord > accepts the rent. Otherwise he is a trespasser. > > First we must distinguish that this was a residential lease, not > a commercial lease. The terms of a tenant at sufferance are > different for commercial leases. Payment of rent does not > change the status of a holdover tenant (tenant at sufferance). > If the landlord accepts the continued payment of rent the tenant > is still a tenant at sufferance. > > If the holdover tenant had a 1 year lease before, that lease is > not automatically renewed by paying rent after the prior lease > expired. The tenant is now a tenant at sufferance which means > the tenant may be evicted at the will of the landlord. If the > rent payments are made for one month in advance, the tenant may > be evicted according to the applicable law for evicting a month > to month tenant. > > If the tenant remains on the property after the lease expires > and pays no rent, he is not a tenant at sufferance he is a > trespasser. A trespasser on a rental property may be ejected in > a much more expeditious fashion in most every jurisdiction. A > trespasser may be removed by an action for ejectment where as a > tenant must be evicted under the laws of eviction which may take > longer depending on the jurisdiction. > > To the Original Poster: > > If the lease contracted for services in exchange for payment of > the lease rent it is probably valid. However, the landlord must > determine the term of the original lease. If over 1 year it > must have been in writing. > > If the lease for services is found to be a valid contract, the > landloard must bring an action for breach of contract alleging > that the tenant has not upheld his end of the contract of > services in exchange for rent. The tenant will likely claim he > has provided the required services for satisfaction of rent. The > landlord will claim the required services have not been > performed when due. That will be a question of fact for the > trier of fact. The contract will control what services the > tenant had preform and when to satisfy his end of the bargained > for exchange of services for rent. If the landlord establishes > that the contract for services has been breached, he may seek > eviction for non-payment of the rent.
Posts on this thread, including this one
- tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by Ronda.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by --.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by Ronda.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by Ronda.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by Ralph.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by Ralph.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by ask a WCSL expert.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by --.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by WCSL GONE.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by Ronda.
- Re: tenant at sufferance hasn't paid rent for over a year, 2/18/09, by --.
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