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Re: Response to Conanylizer
Posted by George on 5/19/09

    The injustice of the situation is, when an employee
    receives a tip from a customer, his employer is now
    able to take the tip away from him with the excuse
    that it might have been intended for someone else.

    Imagine someone stealing what another person has
    given you and when you go before a judge, the judge
    looks you straight in the eye and says "what was given
    you wasn't intended for you, therefore I must rule
    in favor of the party who took what was given you.

    Judges are ruling that tips given an employee are
    not intended for the employee who was given such tips.

    Do you understand what I am saying? Do you really
    think a man should be stripped of his property
    due to an opinion by a judge that those providing
    such property really didn't intend for him to
    have the property?

    Where is the proof? Where is the evidence to back
    up such a claim? If the customers who gave the tips
    were there in court testifying that they did not
    intend for the worker to keep their tip, then I
    might be able to understand the judge's ruling.
    But to simply assert that those giving such tips did
    not intend for the employee to have the tips, without
    any evidence to support the opinion, is an injustice
    that cannot be defended.

    No man should be subjected to a tyranical justice
    system where evidence has no place in the courtroom.

     
     

 
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