Posted by Foreman on 9/22/06

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I have a brother-in-law that is in the process of getting a
divorce, he went to court got a judgement from the court on
what he was to pay and how. His lawyer said that all he
(the lawyer) had to do was file the paperwork with the court
and it is done. Two months later, I am fairly sure that the
paperwork has not been filed and the lawyer has billed again
for talking with my brother-in-laws wife. (she fired her
lawyer and I guess she is trying to represent herself.) Is
this ethical to generate billing this way? If my
brother-in-law calls the lawyer and asks why the paper work
has not been filed is that another billable question? Does
my brother-in-law have any rights. I think the lawyer is
billing excessively to generate fees. Any thoughts?

Divorce and an overbilling lawyer, 9/22/06, by Foreman.

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