Posted by Crystal on 1/02/13

More | Report Post

I am part of a business, that works under contract. The
homeowner, is the one that signed the contract with us, and
is also the only one on the deed to the property that we are
working on. She has verbally named someone (i.e. her
fiancee) to take control and make decisions for her. We are
at an impasse and need another document signed in order to
proceed, releasing us from liability. I am concerned that if
we allow him to sign, and he is neither the homeowner, nor
the signer of the contract, that down the road, she may have
grounds to come back at us, should she choose too. Is this
the case, or will we be covered.

Re: legal names- verbal vs. written, 1/05/13, by Nancy Webman.

Legal Questions Chatboard

LATEST POSTS | BY TOPICS | SUBMIT A POST