Posted by Perplexed on 8/13/04

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In Texas real estate law, is there recourse to the seller
making a buyer sign a "note-after-the-fact'in conjuction
signing refinance papers during closing. The situation: I
refinanced a private mortgage so the seller could get
paid. I did this so I could save nearly 3 per-cent
interest. I was told by closing agent that if I did not
sign the real estate lien note-(note-after-the-fact) that
funding would not go through. I did so that loan would
fund.
Is this legal since I did not receive money for the 2d
note? I felt that this was a confidence game put on me.
Even the closing agent said the seller took a chance!

Note-after-the-fact, 8/13/04, by Perplexed.

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