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    Post: Inconsistent severence payments

    Posted by Greg on 12/20/05


    Can a company be inconsistent with its severance payments?

    The company I work for was purchased by another entity 18
    months ago, and that entity recently decided to exit the
    business we are in. It is not selling our small
    subsidiary, but rather assigning the client contracts over
    to another company.

    All employees that work for the subsidiary being closed
    down had the opportunity to interview with the company that
    is taking over the assigned client contracts. We will all
    remain employees of our current employer through a set
    date. At that time, those who are offered positions with
    the "new" company will begin their employment with that new
    entity with no severance from the current employer.

    All those who are not hired by the new company will receive
    full severance benefits, regardless of whether or not they
    have found new employment. In fact, those who will not be
    hired by the new company can find other employment, leave
    before their defined "end date" (when those who ARE hired
    become employees of the new company), and still collect
    full severance.

    I have never heard of a company paying severance to all
    employees being terminated (in this case, due to a shut
    down of the subsidiary) EXCEPT those who are going to work
    for ONE specific company.

    The current employer believes that it helped those who will
    be hired by the new company get a job by in
    effect "introducing" them to the new company. Therefore,
    it does not believe it should pay those employees
    severance.

    There is no contract with the employees requiring
    severance, so there is no legal requirement that the
    company pay it. I have to believe, however, that they have
    to be equal in how they are paying it.

    If I'm hired by the new company and start with them on
    2/16/2006, I get no severance. My coworker might not be
    offered a job with the new company and instead get hired by
    some other company, have the same start date of 2/16/2006,
    and get paid full severance.

    In my case, the amount would be approximately $ 15,000, so
    I'm wondering if anyone has any thoughts on this one. If
    the purpose of severance is to cover a period while the
    employee looks for new employment, then why would it be
    paid to ANY employee that has found employment as of that
    last date, regardless of who the employer is?



    Posts on this thread, including this one
  • Inconsistent severence payments, 12/20/05, by Greg.


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