Re: prescriptive easements

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If what he's saying is true, then no. A prescriptive
easement is attained through adverse possession, meaning
without the owner's permission. If he was granted
permission, then that permission can be revoked.

Based on the facts you've given, he does not have a valid
claim.

On 2/02/07, Jim B wrote:
> I live in Texas and purchased a tract of land my neighbor
> has been using to asess his property. He had permission
> from the previous owner and has asess to his property
> elswhere. He is claiming a prescriptive easement. Does he
> have a valid claim?