Re: legal names- verbal vs. written

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On 1/02/13, Crystal wrote:
> I am part of a business, that works under contract. The
> homeowner, is the one that signed the contract with us, and
> is also the only one on the deed to the property that we
are
> working on. She has verbally named someone (i.e. her
> fiancee) to take control and make decisions for her. We are
> at an impasse and need another document signed in order to
> proceed, releasing us from liability. I am concerned that
if
> we allow him to sign, and he is neither the homeowner, nor
> the signer of the contract, that down the road, she may
have
> grounds to come back at us, should she choose too. Is this
> the case, or will we be covered.

NO! protect urself as if you're preparing to defend yourself
in court cuz you may end up there. first, u have the
homeowner show u the legal document where she names her
fiancee and list the rights she's giving up to him. She
should also prove to you in writing that the deed on the
property allows her to assign rights over the property to a
third-party. THEN and only then, you make up a document
clearly stating ALL the understandings (from her legal doc
and the property deed) between your company and then ur
company, the property owner, the "third-party" and a witness
sign the document and initial each "understanding".