Posted by Bryce on 3/08/07

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I plead guilty to a D.V charge in 1994. Not knowing this
stupid law would come into effect, otherwise I would have
took it to trial and won since all I did was push her away
from me after he stabbed me in the back of my thigh with a
btcher knife. Since this law came into effect in 1996/1997
and now I can't own a gun, isn't this then an ex post
facto law, which is unonstitutional. I know case law says
no, because ou are being punihed by the new law, not the
D.V. But without the D.V. the new law would not have a
recourse. therefore the new law is contingent upon the
D.V. thus making it ex post facto. Am I wrong here? Are we
going to stand and allow this blatent violation of the
Contitution go unpunished.

Re: Lautenberg amendment, 3/11/08, by George C.

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